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Download and Watch Ice Age Collision Course Free Movie Hd (720p) and mp4 | Free Video Download | FreeMp4.com .Q:

Why can’t we make both the choice of the quantifiers and the choice of the domain?

I have a problem solving a seemingly easy problem in set theory. The problem says:
$m$ is a real number. $n$ is a natural number. We claim that $m-\frac{1}{n}$ equals to $\infty$ if $n
eq0$ and $0$ if $n=0$.
What I did:
$m-\frac{1}{n}=\left\{ \begin{array}{cc}
\infty & n
eq0 \\
0 & n=0
\end{array}\right.$
Suppose $n
eq0$. Whence we have:
$\left\{ \begin{array}{cc}
\infty & n
eq0 \\
0 & n=0
\end{array}\right.$
$\mathbb{R}\subseteq \mathbb{R}\cup\{\infty\}$. Whence we have $\mathbb{R}\subseteq \{\infty\}$
And whence we have $\mathbb{R}\subseteq \{\infty\} \cup\{0\}$
In general, we have that:
$\mathbb{R} \subseteq \{\infty\} \cup\{0\}$
It’s clear now that the problem is wrong because the statement is false. But the way that I solved it is not clear to me. I used a quantifier to say that there are two disjuncts and chose a specific set to see that it was a contradiction.
So, my question is:
What is the correct way to approach this?

A:

Your reasoning is correct. Your only mistake (as you yourself noted) was applying the definition of infinity. The correct statement is:

For any natural number $n$, we have that $n
e 0$ and $n \in \mathbb{Q}$ if and only if $$n-\frac{1}{n} = \infty \tag{1}$$

The reason the problem is